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Posted by scott s. on August 29, 2009, 3:13 am
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>
>> What I had in mind was to have the two loan transactions take their
>> funds from an intermediate account; the funds would get into that
>> intermediate account from the checking account transaction that
>> paid the lendor and was coded as a transfer into the intermediate
>> account. One transaction in your Quicken checking account, just
>> like the real-world; zero balance in the intermediate account.
>>
>> The only problem I was anticipating was finding a way to create two
>> loans whose loan payments combined to exactly what the single
>> real-world payment does.
>
> Actually, that's the best idea so far! Tomorrow I'll play with some
> amortization programs & see if that'll work. Thanks!
>
I've had a similar problem: one loan, but for tax purposes the
proceeds of the loan have to be broken up into principle residence
acquisition debt, passive activity acquisition debt, and investment
debt.
I had to build a spreadsheet for it, because IRS had rules on
how replayment of principle has to be applied, so I couldn't just
take a straight % of the original loan amount and apply that to the
annual interest.
I think the same thing happens if you do a cash-out refi: you have
to keep track of grandfathered acquisition dedt, acquisition debt, and
HELOC debt.
scott s.
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