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Posted by aamato1 on August 10, 2006, 12:09 pm
Please log in for more thread options RC,
Okay, I'm just getting a little confused here. Is the way you initially
explained to enter the Cendant spin-off, the correct way to enter it or
do any modifications need to be made due to Walt's points?
I entered it in the way you explained it and it seems correct to me. Am
I missing something?
I'm not sure if it matter at this time but I'm using Quicken 2006.
Thanks.
Anthony
R. C. White wrote:
> Hi, Walt.
>
> First, I apologize for coming on too strong in my post yesterday. When I
> took another look at the Dummy entries I made yesterday to record Cendant's
> example, I saw that Quicken has CHANGED my entries! I know I did not use
> RtrnCap or Buy, but that is how the entries are now shown in my Register.
>
> I'm tempted to put the rest of my comments inline, but I want to change the
> sequence so I'll just quote extensively and add comments...
>
> > Enter an Add Shares transaction and you will
> > see that there is a transaction date and a Date acquired (basis date).
> > This was added some years back when they fixed most of their basis
> > date bug.
>
> I've seen some discussion of this here, but haven't experienced it myself.
> Now, I when I click on one of the transactions that Q changed to "Bought"
> and then click Edit, I still don't see a place to enter a second date in the
> Buy window. But when I click on the "Enter transaction" drop-down box and
> choose "Add - Shares Added", I see that Q changes the window. It leaves
> most of the numbers unchanged, but adds a "Date acquired" box, with the
> 7/31/2006 date already filled in, and changes the "Transaction date" box to
> 8/8/2005, the date I used for my dummy purchase of C. It also adds a Memo
> entry: "Non taxable spin-off on 7/31/2006".
>
> In your experience, does this allow Q to produce both proper historical
> statements and investment statistics (using the transaction date) and proper
> tax results (using the original date of the C acquisition for all 3 issues)?
> For example, would a 12/31/05 balance sheet show any shares of Realogy or
> Wyndham?
>
> >>> What I still don't understand is why Quicken puts the Buy and Return
> >>> of Capital transactions back on the original purchase date of the
> >>> parent company, in this case Cendant.
> >>
> >>If you are showing a Buy, you are doing it wrong. If you show a Return of
> >>Capital, then you are doing it wrong.
> >
> > Are you saying that's not how Quicken records a tax-free spinoff? (If
> > so, I disagree.) Or are you saying Quicken does it wrong? (I agree.)
>
> I now agree that this is how Quicken handles it. And we agree that Quicken
> does it wrong.
>
> YOU were not doing it wrong, but Quicken was changing it after you entered
> it. Q now does it wrong but gets the right answer. As you said:
>
> > There's no Spinoff transaction in a Quicken register, but the spinoff
> > can be correctly recorded by doing what I suggested in the above post
> > - entering the spinoff, and then changing Quicken's Buy and RtrnCap
> > transactions (found in the register on the basis date) to Add and
> > RtrnCapX transactions on the spinoff date. The labels might be wrong,
> > but I believe the effect is the same as if Quicken had a proper
> > spinoff transaction.
>
> Agreed.
>
> Now that we agree on "simple" spinoffs of a single subsidiary, let's talk
> about multiple simultaneous spinoffs from a single corporation.
>
> >>Step by step, in Quicken, how do you handle multiple
> >>simultaneous spinoffs from a single corporation?
>
> Do you disagree with my treatment? That is, for the first spinoff, show the
> FMV ("Cost", as Q calls it) of the parent by including the FMV of any one or
> more remaining subs. Then, for the final spinoff, use the FMV of the parent
> only. This works in my dummy transactions, but I haven't had a chance to
> test it in the real world.
>
> The whole theory of allocating cost or basis in a spinoff. of course, is
> that the original basis will be allocated in the ratios of fair market
> values after the transaction. Since Q handles only a single spinoff at a
> time, the first transaction recorded must allocate the old basis between FMV
> of the new sub and the parent, but the parent's FMV still includes the FMV
> of any remaining subs. If there are more than two subs being spun off, then
> we have to exclude the FMV of subs already spun off, but include any
> remaining subs. When we get down to the last one, the allocation will be
> like a single spinoff, using the post-spinoff FMV of the stripped-down
> parent alone and of that last sub.
>
> I haven't had to do an OID transaction in a while, so I'll let you handle
> that one. ;<)
>
> Thanks again for pointing out the way Quicken handles spinoffs nowadays!
> And I hope that all my cutting and pasting hasn't made my post too
> confusing. ;^}
>
> RC
> --
> R. C. White, CPA [RC]
> San Marcos, TX
> (Retired. No longer licensed to practice public accounting.)
> rc@grandecom.net
> Microsoft Windows MVP
> (currently running Windows Mail 7 in Vista x64 Build 5472)
>
> >
> >>Hi, Walt.
> >>
> >>> Apparently Quicken now correctly calculates the cost basis for
> >>> multiple spinoffs. This wasn't the case four years ago.
> >>
> >>Are you sure? Step by step, in Quicken, how do you handle multiple
> >>simultaneous spinoffs from a single corporation?
> >>
> > I was sure four years ago, but since it works in Q06 there's no point
> > in trying to reconstruct a fixed bug.
> >
> >>> This causes the spun-off shares
> >>> to appear in the account long before they are actually there, messing
> >>> up the historical records, net worth calculations, etc.
> >>
> >>Yes, sadly, this is what happens in Quicken. :>( It has always been this
> >>way in Quicken, so far as I know. To correct the situation would take a
> >>large investment of programming effort, I suspect. The program would have
> >>to keep track of both the real-life dates and the "as if" dates that the
> >>tax
> >>code prescribes.
> >
> > It already does that. Enter an Add Shares transaction and you will
> > see that there is a transaction date and a Date acquired (basis date).
> > This was added some years back when they fixed most of their basis
> > date bug. That took them five years to fix, because of the
> > programming effort you mention.
> >
> > However, although they now have the tools to record a spinoff
> > correctly, for some reason they still don't.
> >
> >>> What I still don't understand is why Quicken puts the Buy and Return
> >>> of Capital transactions back on the original purchase date of the
> >>> parent company, in this case Cendant.
> >>
> >>If you are showing a Buy, you are doing it wrong. If you show a Return of
> >>Capital, then you are doing it wrong.
> >
> > Are you saying that's not how Quicken records a tax-free spinoff? (If
> > so, I disagree.) Or are you saying Quicken does it wrong? (I agree.)
> >
> > There's no Spinoff transaction in a Quicken register, but the spinoff
> > can be correctly recorded by doing what I suggested in the above post
> > - entering the spinoff, and then changing Quicken's Buy and RtrnCap
> > transactions (found in the register on the basis date) to Add and
> > RtrnCapX transactions on the spinoff date. The labels might be wrong,
> > but I believe the effect is the same as if Quicken had a proper
> > spinoff transaction.
> >
> > RtrnCapX to the same account is the same as a basis adjustment. This
> > is useful in other contexts. For example, when I do my taxes and have
> > to record Original Issue Discount (as on a zero coupon bond or
> > inflation-adjusted T-bill), I adjust the basis upward by entering a
> > Return of Capital for >> minus << the OID amount, with the same
> > account as the transfer account. This adjusts the basis without
> > changing the acount's cash balance.
> >
> > Without adjusting the basis upward for OID, there is a risk of paying
> > tax twice, once on the OID and once as a capital gain when the
> > security is sold.
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