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Posted by aamato1 on August 10, 2006, 11:44 pm
Please log in for more thread options RC,
I agree, it took me 5 minutes to figure out the allocation on paper but
i had so much trouble getting it into Quicken...you would think it
should be the opposite way. Anyway thanks again to you and Walt.
Anthony
R. C. White wrote:
> Hi, Anthony.
>
> Sorry for the confusion. Yes, my original explanation was correct. My post
> from this morning was confusing because my first draft was accidentally
> deleted and I had to start over - and by that time, my train of thought was
> derailed.
>
> I was confused by Walt's first response since I had not noticed that Q2006
> changed my entries after I made them! It converted them to a RtrnCap and a
> Buy. That is not correct and it is not what I entered but it gets the right
> answer in the end, with the added benefit that it preserves both the
> transaction date and the acquisition date for the spun-off shares.
>
> Also, it's more confusing because of Quicken's terminology ("cost" where it
> should say "fair market value immediately after the spinoff") and because
> the program does not provide a way to record multiple simultaneous spinoffs.
>
> We could work this out with pencil and paper in about 5 minutes. The hard
> part is getting it into Quicken.
>
> RC
> --
> R. C. White, CPA [RC]
> San Marcos, TX
> (Retired. No longer licensed to practice public accounting.)
> rc@grandecom.net
> Microsoft Windows MVP
> (currently running Windows Mail 7 in Vista x64 Build 5472)
>
> > RC,
> >
> > Okay, I'm just getting a little confused here. Is the way you initially
> > explained to enter the Cendant spin-off, the correct way to enter it or
> > do any modifications need to be made due to Walt's points?
> >
> > I entered it in the way you explained it and it seems correct to me. Am
> > I missing something?
> >
> > I'm not sure if it matter at this time but I'm using Quicken 2006.
> >
> > Thanks.
> > Anthony
> >
> > R. C. White wrote:
> >> Hi, Walt.
> >>
> >> First, I apologize for coming on too strong in my post yesterday. When I
> >> took another look at the Dummy entries I made yesterday to record
> >> Cendant's
> >> example, I saw that Quicken has CHANGED my entries! I know I did not use
> >> RtrnCap or Buy, but that is how the entries are now shown in my Register.
> >>
> >> I'm tempted to put the rest of my comments inline, but I want to change
> >> the
> >> sequence so I'll just quote extensively and add comments...
> >>
> >> > Enter an Add Shares transaction and you will
> >> > see that there is a transaction date and a Date acquired (basis date).
> >> > This was added some years back when they fixed most of their basis
> >> > date bug.
> >>
> >> I've seen some discussion of this here, but haven't experienced it
> >> myself.
> >> Now, I when I click on one of the transactions that Q changed to "Bought"
> >> and then click Edit, I still don't see a place to enter a second date in
> >> the
> >> Buy window. But when I click on the "Enter transaction" drop-down box
> >> and
> >> choose "Add - Shares Added", I see that Q changes the window. It leaves
> >> most of the numbers unchanged, but adds a "Date acquired" box, with the
> >> 7/31/2006 date already filled in, and changes the "Transaction date" box
> >> to
> >> 8/8/2005, the date I used for my dummy purchase of C. It also adds a
> >> Memo
> >> entry: "Non taxable spin-off on 7/31/2006".
> >>
> >> In your experience, does this allow Q to produce both proper historical
> >> statements and investment statistics (using the transaction date) and
> >> proper
> >> tax results (using the original date of the C acquisition for all 3
> >> issues)?
> >> For example, would a 12/31/05 balance sheet show any shares of Realogy or
> >> Wyndham?
> >>
> >> >>> What I still don't understand is why Quicken puts the Buy and Return
> >> >>> of Capital transactions back on the original purchase date of the
> >> >>> parent company, in this case Cendant.
> >> >>
> >> >>If you are showing a Buy, you are doing it wrong. If you show a Return
> >> >>of
> >> >>Capital, then you are doing it wrong.
> >> >
> >> > Are you saying that's not how Quicken records a tax-free spinoff? (If
> >> > so, I disagree.) Or are you saying Quicken does it wrong? (I agree.)
> >>
> >> I now agree that this is how Quicken handles it. And we agree that
> >> Quicken
> >> does it wrong.
> >>
> >> YOU were not doing it wrong, but Quicken was changing it after you
> >> entered
> >> it. Q now does it wrong but gets the right answer. As you said:
> >>
> >> > There's no Spinoff transaction in a Quicken register, but the spinoff
> >> > can be correctly recorded by doing what I suggested in the above post
> >> > - entering the spinoff, and then changing Quicken's Buy and RtrnCap
> >> > transactions (found in the register on the basis date) to Add and
> >> > RtrnCapX transactions on the spinoff date. The labels might be wrong,
> >> > but I believe the effect is the same as if Quicken had a proper
> >> > spinoff transaction.
> >>
> >> Agreed.
> >>
> >> Now that we agree on "simple" spinoffs of a single subsidiary, let's talk
> >> about multiple simultaneous spinoffs from a single corporation.
> >>
> >> >>Step by step, in Quicken, how do you handle multiple
> >> >>simultaneous spinoffs from a single corporation?
> >>
> >> Do you disagree with my treatment? That is, for the first spinoff, show
> >> the
> >> FMV ("Cost", as Q calls it) of the parent by including the FMV of any one
> >> or
> >> more remaining subs. Then, for the final spinoff, use the FMV of the
> >> parent
> >> only. This works in my dummy transactions, but I haven't had a chance to
> >> test it in the real world.
> >>
> >> The whole theory of allocating cost or basis in a spinoff. of course, is
> >> that the original basis will be allocated in the ratios of fair market
> >> values after the transaction. Since Q handles only a single spinoff at a
> >> time, the first transaction recorded must allocate the old basis between
> >> FMV
> >> of the new sub and the parent, but the parent's FMV still includes the
> >> FMV
> >> of any remaining subs. If there are more than two subs being spun off,
> >> then
> >> we have to exclude the FMV of subs already spun off, but include any
> >> remaining subs. When we get down to the last one, the allocation will be
> >> like a single spinoff, using the post-spinoff FMV of the stripped-down
> >> parent alone and of that last sub.
> >>
> >> I haven't had to do an OID transaction in a while, so I'll let you handle
> >> that one. ;<)
> >>
> >> Thanks again for pointing out the way Quicken handles spinoffs nowadays!
> >> And I hope that all my cutting and pasting hasn't made my post too
> >> confusing. ;^}
> >>
> >> RC
> >>
> >> >
> >> >>Hi, Walt.
> >> >>
> >> >>> Apparently Quicken now correctly calculates the cost basis for
> >> >>> multiple spinoffs. This wasn't the case four years ago.
> >> >>
> >> >>Are you sure? Step by step, in Quicken, how do you handle multiple
> >> >>simultaneous spinoffs from a single corporation?
> >> >>
> >> > I was sure four years ago, but since it works in Q06 there's no point
> >> > in trying to reconstruct a fixed bug.
> >> >
> >> >>> This causes the spun-off shares
> >> >>> to appear in the account long before they are actually there, messing
> >> >>> up the historical records, net worth calculations, etc.
> >> >>
> >> >>Yes, sadly, this is what happens in Quicken. :>( It has always been
> >> >>this
> >> >>way in Quicken, so far as I know. To correct the situation would take
> >> >>a
> >> >>large investment of programming effort, I suspect. The program would
> >> >>have
> >> >>to keep track of both the real-life dates and the "as if" dates that
> >> >>the
> >> >>tax
> >> >>code prescribes.
> >> >
> >> > It already does that. Enter an Add Shares transaction and you will
> >> > see that there is a transaction date and a Date acquired (basis date).
> >> > This was added some years back when they fixed most of their basis
> >> > date bug. That took them five years to fix, because of the
> >> > programming effort you mention.
> >> >
> >> > However, although they now have the tools to record a spinoff
> >> > correctly, for some reason they still don't.
> >> >
> >> >>> What I still don't understand is why Quicken puts the Buy and Return
> >> >>> of Capital transactions back on the original purchase date of the
> >> >>> parent company, in this case Cendant.
> >> >>
> >> >>If you are showing a Buy, you are doing it wrong. If you show a Return
> >> >>of
> >> >>Capital, then you are doing it wrong.
> >> >
> >> > Are you saying that's not how Quicken records a tax-free spinoff? (If
> >> > so, I disagree.) Or are you saying Quicken does it wrong? (I agree.)
> >> >
> >> > There's no Spinoff transaction in a Quicken register, but the spinoff
> >> > can be correctly recorded by doing what I suggested in the above post
> >> > - entering the spinoff, and then changing Quicken's Buy and RtrnCap
> >> > transactions (found in the register on the basis date) to Add and
> >> > RtrnCapX transactions on the spinoff date. The labels might be wrong,
> >> > but I believe the effect is the same as if Quicken had a proper
> >> > spinoff transaction.
> >> >
> >> > RtrnCapX to the same account is the same as a basis adjustment. This
> >> > is useful in other contexts. For example, when I do my taxes and have
> >> > to record Original Issue Discount (as on a zero coupon bond or
> >> > inflation-adjusted T-bill), I adjust the basis upward by entering a
> >> > Return of Capital for >> minus << the OID amount, with the same
> >> > account as the transfer account. This adjusts the basis without
> >> > changing the acount's cash balance.
> >> >
> >> > Without adjusting the basis upward for OID, there is a risk of paying
> >> > tax twice, once on the OID and once as a capital gain when the
> >> > security is sold.
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