|
Posted by usafjayhawk on November 15, 2007, 4:31 pm
Please log in for more thread options
To clarify, I'm not selling all my shares, just some. They are part
of a 401(k) family of securities so for now I have no tax issues. My
question is for each security Quicken shows a cost basis. For those
from which I have not sold any, it matches my separate records
(excel). However, for those from which I have sold some shares
(haven't looked at those that my investment dude liquidated) the cost
basis is not correct...trying to understand why.
For tracking purposes, I use the first in first out method. Within Q,
it then tracks the purchase price of each share...I will look at them
to see if I can get the math (and therefore my understanding) correct.
Thanks
wrote:
>If he is selling all his shares, he is selling all his individual purchases
>(lots) and will have a profit or loss on each lot. This for tax purposes
>will get broken out into short-term or long-term gains or losses.
>
>Oilcan
>
>> Fred Smith wrote:
>>> Sale price has nothing to do with cost. Quicken will subtract the average
>>> cost per share (in your case, $5) times the number of shares sold.
>>>
>>
>> Perhaps, optionally with mutual funds. But cost averaging is not allowed
>> for stocks. The purchase price of the shares sold gets subtracted.
>>
>> Tom
| 
Yahoo! 
Google 
Windows Live 
del.icio.us 
digg 
Netscape 
XML Sitemap