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Posted by Ira Smilovitz on February 22, 2007, 12:05 am
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> I received today (2/20) a 'corrected' 1099DIV from Pershing
> indicating an additional dividends that is reported on the
> updated 1099 DIV statement. But the transaction posting the
> money to my account in repurchased shares is dated 1/31/2007
> (!). I didn't know I was getting this (bought the SPY ETF
> last year); I haven't filed, so it's not a big deal to
> change my return at this point to match the corrected
> 1099DIV, but is this right? Why should I have to declare a
> dividend that is dated 1/31/2007 on a t/y 2006 return when I
> never had control of the money?
>
> Yes, I know the dividend might have been declared in
> December, but it wasn't credited to my account until
> January. Or is this just the way this works? I can't ever
> remember having this situation before; on the other hand, I
> never owned a Unit Investment Trust (which is what SPY is)
> before either.
Certain types of entities have a period of time after the end
of their tax year to distribute their income so as to avoid
having to pay tax themselves. Mutual funds and ETFs are two
such types of entities. If they have a 12/31 fiscal year,
they will often make January distributions which individuals
have to include in their prior year tax returns. That's the
tax law. If you don't like it, complain to your Congressional
representatives.
Ira Smilovitz
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