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Posted by parrisbraeside@yahoo.ca on June 23, 2009, 6:43 am
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> I'm struggling to understand how a US taxpayer who owns an Australian stock
> that pays dividends benefits (or not) from Australian Franking Credits.
>
> As I understand it, the Australian system is that the company paying the
> dividend grosses the dividend up to an amount that - after tax is deducted -
> would realize the dividend they initially intended to pay. For example,
> if the company wants to pay a 10 cent per share dividend, and the tax rate
> is 30%, they calculate the dividend at a gross amount of 14.29 cents and
> then take out the 30%, thus giving the taxpayer a 10 cent dividend together
> with a "franking credit". It looks like the Australian taxpayer claims a
> 14.29 cent dividend on his Australian tax return together with the franking
> credit, thus avoiding paying any additional tax on the 10 cent dividend
> actually received. They thus avoid double taxation on dividends. If
> any of this is not quite right, someone please correct me. I'm not an
> Australian taxpayer.
>
> My question is would any of these facts benefit a US taxpayer receiving the
> same dividend? Specifically, can the US taxpayer claim the dividend at
> 14.29 cents, then claim Australian withholding of the dividend at 30%, thus
> at least partially reducing the additional tax that a 35% tax bracket US
> holder of the stock would need to pay in US taxes on that dividend?
In general (because I am not familiar with the Australian tax system
but am with the Canadian which has a similar mechanism,) the US return
would report the actual dividend. I generally only claim the tax paid
after preparing a tax return but I understand that a number of people
claim the tax withheld. The only concern about that is that any taxes
later refunded become taxable.
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