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Subject Author Date
Calculating a cost basis... chrisexv6 03-15-2007
Posted by chrisexv6 on March 15, 2007, 1:09 am
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I see there are a TON of cost basis questions on this group,
but I couldnt quite get the answer I needed.

My wife has funds that she's held for a long time (15 years
or so). I *know* the dividends were reinvested, but she's
also had capital gains distributions reported for several of
those years. Not being a tax pro, it looks to me like the
capital gain distribs were listed as part of her gross
income on the 1040.

She has now sold 3 of the funds, and we're trying to
determine the cost basis (to get an idea of the tax
implications). My (almost complete) understanding is the
following:

taxable amount from sale = sale price - (original investment
+ reinvested dividends)

My question is where the capital gain distribs fall into
place. It makes sense (to me, anyway) that they would be
another amount subtracted from the above calculation,
because they've already had taxes paid on them, thereby
reducing the taxable "profit" from the sale of the funds
(profit in quotes because Im assuming she ended up making
$$$).

Is my logic correct (provided the capital gains distribs
WERENT reinvested every year)?

If they WERE reinvested, I assume they are then rolled into
the "reinvested dividends" number in the above calculation?

Thanks in advance

-Chris

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Posted by Bill on March 16, 2007, 12:52 pm
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charry@gmail.com (chrisexv6) posted:

> I see there are a TON of cost basis questions
> on this group, but I couldnt quite get the
> answer I needed.
> My wife has funds that she's held for a long
> time (15 years or so). I *know* the dividends
> were reinvested, but she's also had capital
> gains distributions reported for several of
> those years. Not being a tax pro, it looks to me
> like the capital gain distribs were listed as part
> of her gross income on the 1040.
> She has now sold 3 of the funds, and we're
> trying to determine the cost basis (to get an
> idea of the tax implications). My (almost
> complete) understanding is the following:
>
> taxable amount from sale = sale price -
> (original investment + reinvested dividends)

Actually, the equation might better read: Proceeds - Cost
basis = net taxable gain. (The "cost basis" computation is
what you're concerned about -- and it should properly
include _all_ reinvested funds.)

> My question is where the capital gain distribs
> fall into place. It makes sense (to me, anyway)
> that they would be another amount subtracted
> from the above calculation, because they've
> already had taxes paid on them, thereby
> reducing the taxable "profit" from the sale of
> the funds (profit in quotes because Im
> assuming she ended up making $$$).
>
> Is my logic correct (provided the capital gains
> distribs WERENT reinvested every year)?
> If they WERE reinvested, I assume they are
> then rolled into the "reinvested dividends"
> number in the above calculation?

In general, your logic is correct; however, you should
carefully check statements for previous years (undoubtedly
available from the mutual funds involved), or simply phone
the customer service number to determine whether CGD
(Capital Gains Distributions) were _reinvested_ for your
wife's holdings.

The most common practice [for mutual funds where
reinvestment is requested] is that the mutual fund will
reinvest _all_ dividends and distributions. So, if you
don't verify this, you might be _understating_ your wife's
cost basis ... which would cause her/you [if MFJ] to pay
unnecessary extra taxes.

Bill

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<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
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<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
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Posted by joetaxpayer on March 16, 2007, 12:52 pm
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chrisexv6 wrote:

> I see there are a TON of cost basis questions on this group,
> but I couldnt quite get the answer I needed.

snip

> taxable amount from sale = sale price - (original investment
> + reinvested dividends+reinvested cap gains)
>
> My question is where the capital gain distribs fall into
> place.

See change in your equation. For your situation, the
reinvested Cap Gains and Reinvested Dividends are no
different, and also no different than if you added small
sums to the funds, quarterly, or annually. When distributed,
you got cash, paid tax, whether cap gain or dividend, and in
your case you used the money to buy more shares.

So long as you tracked those new purchases, you have all you
need to calculate your basis.

Joe
JoeTaxpayer.com

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

Posted by bono9763@yahoo.com on March 16, 2007, 12:52 pm
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> I see there are a TON of cost basis questions on this group,
> but I couldnt quite get the answer I needed.
>
> My wife has funds that she's held for a long time (15 years
> or so). I *know* the dividends were reinvested, but she's
> also had capital gains distributions reported for several of
> those years. Not being a tax pro, it looks to me like the
> capital gain distribs were listed as part of her gross
> income on the 1040.
>
> She has now sold 3 of the funds, and we're trying to
> determine the cost basis (to get an idea of the tax
> implications). My (almost complete) understanding is the
> following:
>
> taxable amount from sale = sale price - (original investment
> + reinvested dividends)
>
> My question is where the capital gain distribs fall into
> place. It makes sense (to me, anyway) that they would be
> another amount subtracted from the above calculation,
> because they've already had taxes paid on them, thereby
> reducing the taxable "profit" from the sale of the funds
> (profit in quotes because Im assuming she ended up making
> $$$).
>
> Is my logic correct (provided the capital gains distribs
> WERENT reinvested every year)?
>
> If they WERE reinvested, I assume they are then rolled into
> the "reinvested dividends" number in the above calculation?

Reinvested capital gains distributions also are included
in your basis calculation. So the correct formula is

taxable amount from sale = sale price - (original investment
+ reinvested dividends + reinvested capital gains distributions)

If anything was not reinvested, it is not included in the
above calculation.

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

Posted by Rich Carreiro on March 16, 2007, 12:52 pm
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> She has now sold 3 of the funds, and we're trying to
> determine the cost basis (to get an idea of the tax
> implications). My (almost complete) understanding is the
> following:
>
> taxable amount from sale = sale price - (original investment
> + reinvested dividends)
>
> My question is where the capital gain distribs fall into
> place. It makes sense (to me, anyway) that they would be
> another amount subtracted from the above calculation,
> because they've already had taxes paid on them, thereby
> reducing the taxable "profit" from the sale of the funds
> (profit in quotes because Im assuming she ended up making
> $$$).

Cap gain distributions only get get subtracted (in your
equation above) if they are reinvested.

The whole total basis thing is actually very simple:
(1) *All* purchases increase basis by the amount
of the purchase.
(2) *All* reinvestments increase basis by the amount
of the distribution, regardless of what type
of distribution (dividend, capital gain, return
of capital, whatever).
(3) Return of capital distributions *reduce* basis by the
amount of the distribution, whether or not they are
reinvested (of course, if they are reinvested, that
reinvestment increases basis back -- see (2) above).

And (1) and (2) really could be collapsed together
into (1), since all a reinvestment is, is a shortcut
to save the fund mailing you a check and you signing
the check over to them and mailing it right back to
buy more shares.

--
Rich Carreiro rlcarr@animato.arlington.ma.us

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

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