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Posted by Benjamin Yazersky CPA on March 16, 2007, 12:52 pm
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> I see there are a TON of cost basis questions on this group,
> but I couldnt quite get the answer I needed.
>
> My wife has funds that she's held for a long time (15 years
> or so). I *know* the dividends were reinvested, but she's
> also had capital gains distributions reported for several of
> those years. Not being a tax pro, it looks to me like the
> capital gain distribs were listed as part of her gross
> income on the 1040.
>
> She has now sold 3 of the funds, and we're trying to
> determine the cost basis (to get an idea of the tax
> implications). My (almost complete) understanding is the
> following:
>
> taxable amount from sale = sale price - (original investment
> + reinvested dividends)
>
> My question is where the capital gain distribs fall into
> place. It makes sense (to me, anyway) that they would be
> another amount subtracted from the above calculation,
> because they've already had taxes paid on them, thereby
> reducing the taxable "profit" from the sale of the funds
> (profit in quotes because Im assuming she ended up making
> $$$).
>
> Is my logic correct (provided the capital gains distribs
> WERENT reinvested every year)?
>
> If they WERE reinvested, I assume they are then rolled into
> the "reinvested dividends" number in the above calculation?
all reinvested dividends (including capital gain divs) are
added to cost basis
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