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Capital Gains - IRA Wash Rule

 

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Subject Author Date
Capital Gains - IRA Wash Rule kupchik 04-07-2008
Posted by Han on April 8, 2008, 6:24 pm
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>
>> > Phil Marti wrote:
>> > >>If you sell a stock in a taxable account at a loss and then buy
>> > >>it back in an IRA account within 30 days, are you allowed to
>> > >>claim the loss?
>> > >
>> > > No, according to the IRS. I don't know if it's been litigated,
>> > > but I
>> don't
>> > > think so.
>> >
>> > I thought we had a definitive answer back in December:
>> >
>> > The IRS yesterday issued an advance copy of Rev. Rul. 2008-5,
>> > 2008-3 I.R.B. ___ (1/22/08), which applies the § 1091 wash sale
>> > rules where a taxpayer sells stock or securities at a loss and then
>> > causes her IRA to purchase substantially identical stock or
>> > securities within thirty days.
>> > As a result, the loss on the sale is disallowed and the
>> > taxpayer's
>> > basis in the IRA is not increased.
>> >
>> > http://taxprof.typepad.com/taxprof_blog/files/rev.%20Rul.%202008-5.p
>> > df is a copy of the ruling.
>> >
>> > Good FAQ item, BTW.
>>
>> I'd say that such could be a bad ruling. In general, a taxpayer and
>> his IRA are separate (but related) entities, especially for ownership
>> purposes (although one owns the other).
>
> But the ruling is consistent with the spirit and intent of the wash
> sale rule. The purpose of the rule is to prevent taxpayers from
> turning paper losses into realized losses, and thus reducing their
> tax, with little risk of missing an increase in the security's value.
> Selling outside the IRA and then buying inside the IRA would be a
> pretty effective way of doing this, although also it has the effect of
> turning future capital gains into future ordinary income when you
> withdraw from the IRA.
>
> I could definitely see why they'd want to prohibit this in the case of
> Roth IRAs. You'd get to realize the loss, but then repurchase the
> security and never pay tax on the subsequent growth.
>
So I sold with a gain that was much smaller because of the current slump,
and purchased into a Roth. For both 2007 and 2008. Since I didn't have
a loss, it is legal? <grin>


--
Best regards
Han
email address is invalid

--
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Posted by Barry Margolin on April 9, 2008, 7:24 pm
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> So I sold with a gain that was much smaller because of the current slump,
> and purchased into a Roth. For both 2007 and 2008. Since I didn't have
> a loss, it is legal? <grin>

Sure. The wash sale rule doesn't prohibit selling in a regular account
and buying in an IRA, it just prevents you from taking the loss off your
taxes for that year. If you sell at a gain, you INCREASE your tax for
that year, and the feds will take it happily.

--
Barry Margolin, barmar@alum.mit.edu
Arlington, MA
*** PLEASE don't copy me on replies, I'll read them in the group ***

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

Posted by DF2 on April 9, 2008, 8:02 pm
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In misc.taxes.moderated, Han wrote:

>
>So I sold with a gain that was much smaller because of the current slump,
>and purchased into a Roth. For both 2007 and 2008. Since I didn't have
>a loss, it is legal? <grin>

This doesn't involve the emotional other issue. A gain, however
small, is not a wash sale.

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

Posted by Han on April 9, 2008, 10:16 pm
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> In misc.taxes.moderated, Han wrote:
>
>>
>>So I sold with a gain that was much smaller because of the current
>>slump, and purchased into a Roth. For both 2007 and 2008. Since I
>>didn't have a loss, it is legal? <grin>
>
> This doesn't involve the emotional other issue. A gain, however
> small, is not a wash sale.
>
Thanks DF2 and Barry. That was my understanding too. Now I have to pay
estimated taxes on the gain, I think ...

--
Best regards
Han
email address is invalid

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

Posted by Han on April 13, 2008, 4:02 pm
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130.81.64.196:

>
>> In misc.taxes.moderated, Han wrote:
>>
>>>
>>>So I sold with a gain that was much smaller because of the current
>>>slump, and purchased into a Roth. For both 2007 and 2008. Since I
>>>didn't have a loss, it is legal? <grin>
>>
>> This doesn't involve the emotional other issue. A gain, however
>> small, is not a wash sale.
>>
> Thanks DF2 and Barry. That was my understanding too. Now I have to pay
> estimated taxes on the gain, I think ...
>
Well, darn it. I thought I still had a gain on the sale of Magellan
shares, but not apparently after all calculations done properly. It is a
loss.

So could you please recapitulate what my situation is now?

These were mechanically 4 transfers from a single joint taxable account at
Fidelity into 2 separate individual Roth IRA accounts with the same SS#s as
on the joint account for 2007 and 2008 contributions for taxpayer and
spouse.

Joint account Magellan shares were bought over the years.
Sold on 1/22/08 with a ~$450 loss

Proceeds were transferred to Roth IRAs (spouse and me) for 2007 and 2008
contributions.
Purchased Magellan shares immediately using the Roth transferred proceeds.
(yeah, maybe not so smart, but I'm hoping the investment will pay off
eventually).

Questions:
I can or cannot report the loss for 2008 taxes?
The basis of these just purchased shares in the Roth accounts does not
really matter, right?

Thanks in advance!
--
Best regards
Han
email address is invalid

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

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