|
Posted by jo on August 21, 2007, 11:53 pm
Please log in for more thread options
Thanks for the comments. In my case, the financial plan
would be almost (if not entirely) exclusively asset
management strategy, perhaps tax issues.
Does everyone agree on the comment that if a portion of the
plan, either the strategy or the ongoing yearly charge,
involves tax free income, one would have to somehow come up
with a formula for prorating both the plan fee and the
management fee? How in the world would one be able to do
that??
I do itemize extensively because of high medical deductions
and state and local taxes I understand the limit on
investment expenses deductibility percentage, but good thing
you reminded me because forgot about it and need to
calculate that into the equation.
jo
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
| 
Yahoo! 
Google 
Windows Live 
del.icio.us 
digg 
Netscape 
XML Sitemap