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Posted by bono9763@yahoo.com on March 30, 2007, 10:46 pm
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> I apologize for asking what is probably a simple question,
> but...
>
> I understand the "accounting" concept of straight line
> depreciation. My vehicle is used 100% in my business, it has
> a useful life of 5 years and no salvage value so I take the
> value multiply by business use percentage and divide by the
> 5 year useful life to get my depreciation amount for each of
> the 5 years. At years end I make the necessary journal
> entries to record said depreciation. books look good and I
> have an accurate picture of what my assets are worth.
>
> Now, my question is this, what the &*#! is the IRS talking
> about on form 4562??? Half-year convention, depreciation
> rate, "multiply the percentage rate by the property's
> unrecovered basis (basis for depreciation (as defined in
> column (c)) reduced by all prior years depreciation)?!?
>
> I realize that at this point I'm very frustrated with the
> tax codes so I'm probably not reading this correctly, or
> reading to much into it - but it seems like it is way to
> complicated for me to be doing it right! Am I missing
> something. Why can't I simply enter 1/5 the value of the
> asset - aka. the depreciation amount from my books - as the
> depreciation amount on form 4562? Could someone please help
> clarify how to "depreciate assets the IRS way"!
IRS uses a "Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System"
(MACRS) to depreciate property. It assumes the property was
placed in service mid- year, and so you report depreciate of
5-year property over six tax years (one-half year for the
first and last years of service). It usually involves the
200% declining balance method. See IRS Pub. 946 for more
details.
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