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Posted by Harlan Lunsford on January 11, 2008, 5:28 pm
Please log in for more thread options Suzanne DeAngelillis wrote:
> This statement is in today's NY Times
> (http://www.nytimes.com/2008/01/11/us/11calif.html?ref=us)
> "revenue in California has plummeted because of troubles in the housing
> market".
>
> Is this yet another case of the NY Times journalists stating idiotic
> "facts" that are patently untrue?
>
> I can't imagine how revenue in California can possibly "plummet" because of
> what appear to be minor (if any) decline in housing prices. Can you?
>
> For example, say housing prices stayed steady; then revenue in California
> would remain the same. Say they went up (which they appear to have done in
> the bay area), then revenues go up slightly because people don't sell their
> house just because it went up in value. They live in their house.
>
> Now, say they went down. Same thing. The taxes paid on the house are
> roughly 1.2 to 1.5% (give or take a few). So, given only a small percentage
> of the houses that declined in value (if any) were actually sold, then the
> tax change is only a small fraction of that small fraction.
>
> Hence, I'm amazed at the journalists' statement.
> Are the NY Times journalists yet again guilty of idiocy?
> Or am I?
>
You just HAD to ask! grin at William, et al!
Here I don't even know you but I can tell you that you are not the idiot.
ChEAr$,
Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA
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