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Subject Author Date
Land Encumbrance Drew.Blaha 02-05-2008
Posted by Drew.Blaha on February 5, 2008, 9:28 am
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My grandmother died almost 25 years ago. Her estate was split evenly
between her two children, my mother and aunt. However, since the aunt
had died, that 50% went to the one grandchild, my cousin, on that
side of the family. There was some undeveloped land as part of the
estate, which then was jointly owned by my mother and my cousin. My
mother has now passed away, and her portion of the land is now being
passed on to multiple children. So, the land is now half owned by one
person, and half owned by 6 people. At first it seemed the correct
thing for estate valuation was to just take the county tax value of
the property. However, I've been reading enough here to understand
that the land is considered encumbered to the estate due to the half
ownership of the cousin. It would be very difficult to sell this land
to developers, as he would prefer that it stay in the family and
either left alone, next to a family house, or another house put on it
for a family member. So, instead of what the value of the land is to
condo developers, we're limited to a smaller price. In the 25 years
that my cousin and mother jointly owned the property, they were not
able to get it settled. (Not that they worked real hard at it, but the
fact remains that the land is 1/2 owned by someone who would prefer
not to sell). As such, I believe I have a legitimate argument that
the land is encumbered at this point and the value of the land should
be reduced for estate valuation. Having said all that, my question
is, how do you quantify the encumbrance and come up with a value for
the land? Obviously I'd like to say the land is nearly worthless and
not pay taxes on it. I can see where that wouldn't fly with the IRS.
But I truly believe it isn't worth as much as the appraisal due to the
difficulty in selling it. Any help out there? Thanks.

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Posted by ed on February 5, 2008, 1:27 pm
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On Feb 5, 8:28 am, Drew.Bl...@itg-global.com wrote:
> My grandmother died almost 25 years ago.  Her estate was split evenly
> between her two children, my mother and aunt.  However, since the aunt
> had died, that 50% went to the one grandchild, my cousin,  on that
> side of the family.  There was some undeveloped land as part of the
> estate, which then was jointly owned by my mother and my cousin.  My
> mother has now passed away, and her portion of the land is now being
> passed on to multiple children.  So, the land is now half owned by one
> person, and half owned by 6 people.  At first it seemed the correct
> thing for estate valuation was to just take the county tax value of
> the property.  However, I've been reading enough here to understand
> that the land is considered encumbered to the estate due to the half
> ownership of the cousin.  It would be very difficult to sell this land
> to developers, as he would prefer that it stay in the family and
> either left alone, next to a family house, or another house put on it
> for a family member.  So, instead of what the value of the land is to
> condo developers, we're limited to a smaller price.  In the 25 years
> that my cousin and mother jointly owned the  property, they were not
> able to get it settled. (Not that they worked real hard at it, but the
> fact remains that the land is 1/2 owned by someone who would prefer
> not to sell).  As such, I believe I have a legitimate argument that
> the land is encumbered at this point and the value of the land should
> be reduced for estate valuation.  Having said all that, my question
> is, how do you  quantify the encumbrance and come up with a value for
> the land?  Obviously I'd like to say the land is nearly worthless and
> not pay taxes on it.  I can see where that wouldn't fly with the IRS.
> But I truly believe it isn't worth as much as the appraisal due to the
> difficulty in selling it.  Any help out there?  Thanks.
>
You are correct. The value is considrably less, but what value, and
for what purpose are you asking? Your mother's Federal Estate Value
(now your childrens' tax basis) was established at her date of death.
Unless her estate is subject to FET tax you would want this appraisal
value to be as HIGH as possible.. If her estate is subjects to FET
you'd want it as LOW as possible. Hopefully you sttll have time to
juggle it on her FET return.. Your cousins' 1/2 is valued at their
mother's date of death value 25 years ago, but will step-up when she
dies. All this is wrong if the house is in a trust that does not
vest on subsequent deaths.

There are appraisal firms that specaliize in estate valuations of
property whose value is less than normal. Their valuation can be
quite a pleasant shock

ed.
> << ------------------------------------------------------- >>
> << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used,   >>
> << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties  >>
> << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer.                  >>
> <<                                                         >>
> <<   The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts   >>
> <<  to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy  >>
> <<                  are atwww.asktax.org.                 >>
> <<         Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved.         >>
> << ------------------------------------------------------- >>

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

Posted by D. Stussy on February 5, 2008, 6:13 pm
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> On Feb 5, 8:28 am, Drew.Bl...@itg-global.com wrote:
> > My grandmother died almost 25 years ago. Her estate was split evenly
> > between her two children, my mother and aunt. However, since the aunt
> > had died, that 50% went to the one grandchild, my cousin, on that
> > side of the family. There was some undeveloped land as part of the
> > estate, which then was jointly owned by my mother and my cousin. My
> > mother has now passed away, and her portion of the land is now being
> > passed on to multiple children. So, the land is now half owned by one
> > person, and half owned by 6 people. At first it seemed the correct
> > thing for estate valuation was to just take the county tax value of
> > the property. However, I've been reading enough here to understand
> > that the land is considered encumbered to the estate due to the half
> > ownership of the cousin. It would be very difficult to sell this land
> > to developers, as he would prefer that it stay in the family and
> > either left alone, next to a family house, or another house put on it
> > for a family member. So, instead of what the value of the land is to
> > condo developers, we're limited to a smaller price. In the 25 years
> > that my cousin and mother jointly owned the property, they were not
> > able to get it settled. (Not that they worked real hard at it, but the
> > fact remains that the land is 1/2 owned by someone who would prefer
> > not to sell). As such, I believe I have a legitimate argument that
> > the land is encumbered at this point and the value of the land should
> > be reduced for estate valuation. Having said all that, my question
> > is, how do you quantify the encumbrance and come up with a value for
> > the land? Obviously I'd like to say the land is nearly worthless and
> > not pay taxes on it. I can see where that wouldn't fly with the IRS.
> > But I truly believe it isn't worth as much as the appraisal due to the
> > difficulty in selling it. Any help out there? Thanks.
> >
> You are correct. The value is considrably less, but what value, and
> for what purpose are you asking? Your mother's Federal Estate Value
> (now your childrens' tax basis) was established at her date of death.
> Unless her estate is subject to FET tax you would want this appraisal
> value to be as HIGH as possible.. If her estate is subjects to FET
> you'd want it as LOW as possible. Hopefully you sttll have time to
> juggle it on her FET return.. Your cousins' 1/2 is valued at their
> mother's date of death value 25 years ago, but will step-up when she
> dies. All this is wrong if the house is in a trust that does not
> vest on subsequent deaths.
>
> There are appraisal firms that specaliize in estate valuations of
> property whose value is less than normal. Their valuation can be
> quite a pleasant shock
>
> ed.

Why would the cousin's half receive a basis step-up? I see no community
property nor surviving spouse issue here.

Any good appraiser will first compute the 100% valuation before figuring out
the discount value for any "complications" on the property. That helps to
cap the IRS should they challenge the discount (in that if they wish to
exceed the 100% appraised amount, then they have a second issue of
challenging the appraisal also).

For how to determine the discount, look for "family limited partnership
(FLP)" case law.

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

Posted by Stuart Bronstein on February 5, 2008, 6:57 pm
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> Why would the cousin's half receive a basis step-up? I see no
> community property nor surviving spouse issue here.

There's a stepped up basis on any inherited property. Community
property going to a spouse allows a double stepped up basis, but not
the only one.

> For how to determine the discount, look for "family limited
> partnership (FLP)" case law.

The only problem I see with the discount is that in family limited
partnerships the other owners have no right to have their property sold
as a unit - it's in the partnership agreement.

But absent an agreement, an owner (especially of real property) has the
right to partition - to have the entire property sold as a unit, and be
paid off in full. If I worked for the IRS I'd deny a blockage discount
in this kind of case, because there's really no blockage from a legal
standpoint.

Stu

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

Posted by D. Stussy on February 5, 2008, 9:28 pm
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>
> > Why would the cousin's half receive a basis step-up? I see no
> > community property nor surviving spouse issue here.
>
> There's a stepped up basis on any inherited property. Community
> property going to a spouse allows a double stepped up basis, but not
> the only one.

Yes, but the cousin got his step-up when he inherited his half from his
parent. He's not entitled to a step-up when his aunt dies of which he
receives NO share.

> > For how to determine the discount, look for "family limited
> > partnership (FLP)" case law.
>
> The only problem I see with the discount is that in family limited
> partnerships the other owners have no right to have their property sold
> as a unit - it's in the partnership agreement.

True, but it's the closest thing we have to the situation that's easy to
find case law on. It is a family partnership with one 1/2, and six 1/12ths.

> But absent an agreement, an owner (especially of real property) has the
> right to partition - to have the entire property sold as a unit, and be
> paid off in full. If I worked for the IRS I'd deny a blockage discount
> in this kind of case, because there's really no blockage from a legal
> standpoint.

That assumes that it can be further partitioned. We'd need to know the size
of the parcel....

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

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