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Posted by Stuart A. Bronstein on October 1, 2009, 3:14 pm
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>>
>> As I recall there was a provision in the tax code (is it still
>> there?) that says leasehold improvements made by a tenant but
>> benefit the landlord at the end of the lease, are not taxed to
>> the landlord.
>
> I really want to be Stuart on this one - the only increase you
> should get in basis would be due to any income you reported as a
> result of the improvement.
>
> However, I'm not sure about this. Please not that I said NOT
> SURE, because I'm not. I'd want to research it get an answer
> you could rely on, but I am concerned about:
IRC §109 says, in full,
"Gross income does not include income (other than rent) derived by
a lessor of real property on the termination of a lease,
representing the value of such property attributable to buildings
erected or other improvements made by the lessee."
As far as basis, that's dealt with in regulation §1.1019-1. It
says that if a lessor would have had taxable income but for §109,
there is no change in basis to the property.
That will be $150.
> 1 - windfall benefit. If you buy a desk for $100 and find an
> original Monet in one of the drawers isn't there some windfall
> tax that you'd be responsible for? Would this impact basis?
If it's not cash, are you taxed when you find it, or when you sell
it?
> 2 - what about those home improvement shows, where they fix up
> or completely rebuild a home. I believe that the value of these
> improvements is considered income to the home owners, in which
> case if they paid tax on it, it should add to basis.
I'd imagine that it could be structured to be fully tax free. If
the show leases the property from the owner for 14 days or less,
any lease payments are tax free to the homeowner. §208A.
Then based on §109, the improvements would also be tax free. They
do not increase the basis, however, so the taxpayer would end up
being taxed on the improvements when the property is sold.
> 3 - is there any argument that the house WOULD have rented for
> more had it had a garage and it was rented for less under the
> condition that the garage be built and transferred to the owner
> upon termination of the lease? I think this is similar to
> Harland's position, which I think may have merit.
Apparently not.
--
Stu
http://downtoearthlawyer.com
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