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Posted by lurker on January 21, 2007, 4:37 pm
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Situation...
I have no wages since 2002.
I have a ROTH opened in 2000.
I took qualified distributions from it in 2005.
I have another ROTH at Fidelity opened November 2004 with a
conversion of 100% of a 401K from a different employer. I
executed a conversion from my employer 401K of 1/3 the total
value.
Summary...
I have two ROTHS in two places.
All ROTH funding is via conversion. Never were there any
wages contributions.
My question:
Yes, I am reading the instructions, but I am unclear on a
"definition."
In the spirit of From 8606, does the definition of "SEP, or
Simple IRA" include an employer 401K?
Specifically, does the conversion of part of my 401K to a
ROTH in a different company satisfy the definition discussed
in line 6?
Carl
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