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Subject Author Date
New Home Owner Tax Credit don 08-03-2009
Posted by don on August 3, 2009, 5:48 pm
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My son got married in July 2009. With his new wife, they intend to buy
a house before 1 December 2009. My son has owned a condo, that he
bought ~ 3 years ago (he lived in that condo until 13 months ago). He
now rents the condo.

His "new" wife has never owned a house. Their real estate is telling
them that if they buy a new house, in HER name, that SHE would be
entitled to the currently available IRS tax credit for $8k -as first
time new buyer tax credit?

As the real estate agent is NOT a tax pro; plus she has a real estate
commission on the "line"- I do NOT trust her tax advice.

Is my daughter-in-law eligible for a $8k (new home owner) tax credit?

Sure appreciate any guidance - that I might relay to my son/wife!

don

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Posted by Arthur Kamlet on August 3, 2009, 5:54 pm
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>My son got married in July 2009. With his new wife, they intend to buy
>a house before 1 December 2009. My son has owned a condo, that he
>bought ~ 3 years ago (he lived in that condo until 13 months ago). He
>now rents the condo.
>
>His "new" wife has never owned a house. Their real estate is telling
>them that if they buy a new house, in HER name, that SHE would be
>entitled to the currently available IRS tax credit for $8k -as first
>time new buyer tax credit?
>
>As the real estate agent is NOT a tax pro; plus she has a real estate
>commission on the "line"- I do NOT trust her tax advice.
>
>Is my daughter-in-law eligible for a $8k (new home owner) tax credit?
>
>Sure appreciate any guidance - that I might relay to my son/wife!


If you follow the agent's tax advice, I also recommend having
this agent do all your root canal work.


It's not even close. Does not qualify for the credit.
--

ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

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<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
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<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
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Posted by Alan on August 3, 2009, 6:58 pm
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Arthur Kamlet wrote:
>> My son got married in July 2009. With his new wife, they intend to buy
>> a house before 1 December 2009. My son has owned a condo, that he
>> bought ~ 3 years ago (he lived in that condo until 13 months ago). He
>> now rents the condo.
>>
>> His "new" wife has never owned a house. Their real estate is telling
>> them that if they buy a new house, in HER name, that SHE would be
>> entitled to the currently available IRS tax credit for $8k -as first
>> time new buyer tax credit?
>>
>> As the real estate agent is NOT a tax pro; plus she has a real estate
>> commission on the "line"- I do NOT trust her tax advice.
>>
>> Is my daughter-in-law eligible for a $8k (new home owner) tax credit?
>>
>> Sure appreciate any guidance - that I might relay to my son/wife!
>
>
> If you follow the agent's tax advice, I also recommend having
> this agent do all your root canal work.
>
>
> It's not even close. Does not qualify for the credit.
Merely to explain why you fail to qualify:

FIRST-TIME HOMEBUYER- The term `first-time homebuyer' means any
individual if such individual (and if married, such individual's
spouse) had no present ownership interest in a principal
residence during the 3-year period ending on the date of the
purchase of the principal residence.

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<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
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<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
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<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
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Posted by Dan Lanciani on August 3, 2009, 10:48 pm
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writes:

| FIRST-TIME HOMEBUYER- The term `first-time homebuyer' means any
| individual if such individual (and if married, such individual's
| spouse) had no present ownership interest in a principal
| residence during the 3-year period ending on the date of the
| purchase of the principal residence.

So if she had bought the house immediately before she got married she
would been eligible for the credit? (Awaiting comment on the advantages
of living in sin. :)

                                Dan Lanciani
                                ddl@danlan.*com

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<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
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<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
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<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
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Posted by Tempuser on August 3, 2009, 11:25 pm
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Dan Lanciani wrote:
(Alan) writes:
>
> | FIRST-TIME HOMEBUYER- The term `first-time homebuyer' means any
> | individual if such individual (and if married, such individual's
> | spouse) had no present ownership interest in a principal
> | residence during the 3-year period ending on the date of the
> | purchase of the principal residence.
>
> So if she had bought the house immediately before she got married she
> would been eligible for the credit? (Awaiting comment on the advantages
> of living in sin. :)
>
>                                 Dan Lanciani
>                                 ddl@danlan.*com
>
I think you are asking whether a taxpayer who is single and meets
the definition of a first time homebuyer in 2009, and who buys a
home and then later marries an individual in 2009 who is not a
first time homebuyer, can take the credit.

For sure, the taxpayer could amend 2008 and claim the credit on
that return as the taxpayer would have been single in 2008. As to
2009, I don't know as the relevant section is ambiguous as to the
timing of the clause "(and if, married, such individual's
spouse)". Married at the time of purchase or married at the time
of claiming the credit?

If I was a betting man, I would bet that the IRS would interpret
that clause to mean married at the time of filing a claim would
disqualify you i the spouse failed the test.

I have not seen any guidance.

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<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
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<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
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<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
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