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Subject Author Date
Re: Amended Returns Pats Fan 08-23-2007
Posted by Pats Fan on August 23, 2007, 9:48 pm
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>> Just giving this a shot.

>> I have a client who wants to look back as many years as
>> possible for potentially amending. I know that if one owes,
>> that will always be due. But this client owes to the IRS
>> about $850 for the Year 2003. Based on the language from the
>> 1040x Instructions,"3 years after the date you filed the
>> original return or within 2 years after the date you paid
>> the tax, whichever is later" it seems legally that this
>> client still has the right to file for a credit for the Year
>> 2003. (Yet intuitively I feel that I am reading this
>> incorrectly.
>>
>> Can someone clarify this for me?

> I'm not sure where your confusion is coming from. There are
> two possible dates of interest and the deadline for filing
> an amended return is the later of those two dates.
>
> (1) 3 years after filing. The deadline for filing the 2003
> return was April 15, 2004. If he filed his return by then,
> the last date for amending is April 15, 2007. If he filed
> for an extension or just plain filed late, then the last
> date for amending is three years from the date he filed. So
> it really depends on when he filed his original return in
> determining this date.
>
> (2) 2 years after paying the tax. If he filed on time, and
> the IRS sent him a notice in 2005 that he owed more tax and
> he paid that tax on February 5, 2006, then the last date he
> could amend his return is two years past the date he paid
> the tax, Feb. 5, 2008. In this example, this would be later
> than 3 years past the filing deadline.

Your #2 was closest to what I was getting at, Dennis. But I
think where my situation is different is that the client
filed timely as I recall, but did not pay for 2003. Still
has not. I guess that would be a somewhat "artificial"
application of the rule, and would void even thinking about
it. Right? Thanks, all.

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Posted by Phil Marti on August 24, 2007, 7:29 pm
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> Your #2 was closest to what I was getting at, Dennis. But I
> think where my situation is different is that the client
> filed timely as I recall, but did not pay for 2003. Still
> has not. I guess that would be a somewhat "artificial"
> application of the rule, and would void even thinking about
> it. Right?

Wrong. As I noted in my earlier response, you can claim a
refund of something paid within 2 years of the payment. It
doesn't matter what the underlying assessment statute is.
There's nothing artificial about it.

The client does have to actually pay the balance due first,
as opposed to filing an amended return as a claim for
abatement without payment.

--
Phil Marti
Clarksburg, MD

<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

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