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Subject Author Date
Re: Retained life estate Dan Lanciani 04-15-2006
Posted by Dan Lanciani on April 15, 2006, 2:08 am
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drewsbeagles@hotmail.com (Drew Edmundson) writes:

> In 25.2511-1(h)(5) the original owner adds a joint owner to
> real estate. This is a completed gift for gift tax purposes
> but not for estate tax purposes (see 2040). That is why a
> credit is allowed for the previously paid gift tax, to avoid
> the double tax. In both examples I am assuming that the two
> joint owners are not spouses. Rules for spouses are
> different.

If no gift tax was paid but only a portion of the lifetime
exclusion consumed does the estate get "credit" for that
as well? Does the entire property enjoy the basis step up?
Are there any issues if the value of the property changed
significantly between title change and death (in particular
if it went down)?

I'm trying to understand why popular wisdon says that
passing title by joint tenancy is bad for tax purposes. I
understand the non-tax issues...

Dan Lanciani
ddl@danlan.*com

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Posted by Drew Edmundson on April 16, 2006, 2:10 am
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dl@danlan.*com (Dan Lanciani) wrote:
> drewsbeagles@hotmail.com (Drew Edmundson) writes:

>> In 25.2511-1(h)(5) the original owner adds a joint owner to
>> real estate. This is a completed gift for gift tax purposes
>> but not for estate tax purposes (see 2040). That is why a
>> credit is allowed for the previously paid gift tax, to avoid
>> the double tax. In both examples I am assuming that the two
>> joint owners are not spouses. Rules for spouses are
>> different.

> If no gift tax was paid but only a portion of the lifetime
> exclusion consumed does the estate get "credit" for that
> as well? Does the entire property enjoy the basis step up?
> Are there any issues if the value of the property changed
> significantly between title change and death (in particular
> if it went down)?

There is no credit as there was no gift tax paid. The
"lifetime exclusion" is, in effect, restored for the amount
used on that gift tax return. The property is stepped up to
the full fair market value at date of death or the
alternative date, if elected.

To the professionals, I realize these aren't the same terms
we typically use. I am just trying to get at the gist of
the matter.

---
Drew Edmundson, CPA
Cary, NC

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only >>
<< and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting >>
<< messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

Posted by Stuart A. Bronstein on April 16, 2006, 2:29 am
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ddl@danlan.*com (Dan Lanciani) wrote:
> drewsbeagles@hotmail.com (Drew Edmundson) writes:

>> In 25.2511-1(h)(5) the original owner adds a joint owner to
>> real estate. This is a completed gift for gift tax purposes
>> but not for estate tax purposes (see 2040). That is why a
>> credit is allowed for the previously paid gift tax, to avoid
>> the double tax. In both examples I am assuming that the two
>> joint owners are not spouses. Rules for spouses are
>> different.

> If no gift tax was paid but only a portion of the lifetime
> exclusion consumed does the estate get "credit" for that
> as well?

In a manner of speaking. On death the gift tax and estate
tax are in effect melded into one, taxing the current estate
and all past taxable gifts, with credit for gift taxes
already paid.

> Does the entire property enjoy the basis step up?

If joint tenancy property is all considered to belong to the
decedent for estate tax purposes, the answer is yes.

> Are there any issues if the value of the property changed
> significantly between title change and death (in particular
> if it went down)?

Issues? I don't understand what you're getting at. The tax
effects don't change.

> I'm trying to understand why popular wisdon says that
> passing title by joint tenancy is bad for tax purposes. I
> understand the non-tax issues...

This is particularly an issue in community property states.

With respect to husbands and wives, joint tenancy property
is considered owned half by each. So when one dies only
half gets the stepped up basis.

On the other hand if the property were left as community
property (which can be done by using a trust), the entire
value of the property, not just half, gets the stepped up
basis.

For children the same kind of thing can happen. If a parent
puts property in joint tenancy with a child for purpose of
passing title on death, and in exchange the child takes care
of the parent, that could be thought to be consideration in
exchange for the ownership interest in the property. To the
extent the joint tenancy is in exchange for consideration,
the "purchaser" becomes an owner for tax purposes. And the
portion "owned" by the child does not get a stepped up basis
when the parent dies.

Stu

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only >>
<< and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting >>
<< messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

Posted by Dan Lanciani on April 17, 2006, 12:34 pm
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spamtrap@sbcglobal.net (Stuart A. Bronstein) writes:
> ddl@danlan.*com (Dan Lanciani) wrote:

>> If no gift tax was paid but only a portion of the lifetime
>> exclusion consumed does the estate get "credit" for that
>> as well?

> In a manner of speaking. On death the gift tax and estate
> tax are in effect melded into one, taxing the current estate
> and all past taxable gifts, with credit for gift taxes
> already paid.

If you previously paid gift tax because you exceeded the
lifetime gift number but your estate (with add back) is
under the estate tax number do you get a refund of the
credit? (The "unified" gift and estate tax magic number
for gifts is still just $1M, right?)

>> Are there any issues if the value of the property changed
>> significantly between title change and death (in particular
>> if it went down)?

> Issues? I don't understand what you're getting at.

I was thinking that you might have a credit with respect
to a past gift that exceeds the tax that would be due on
its reduced value in the estate. (Or is the value that
is included in the estate the value that was used at the
time of the taxable gift?) This seems like the kind of
thing that often provokes special rules that insure that
you lose both ways, e.g., limiting the credit to the
lesser of the past tax paid and the present tax that
would be due.

> If a parent
> puts property in joint tenancy with a child for purpose of
> passing title on death, and in exchange the child takes care
> of the parent, that could be thought to be consideration in
> exchange for the ownership interest in the property. To the
> extent the joint tenancy is in exchange for consideration,
> the "purchaser" becomes an owner for tax purposes. And the
> portion "owned" by the child does not get a stepped up basis
> when the parent dies.

How is the portion owned by the child determined? Is it
the portion of the property at fair market value that could
be bought by the fair market value of the care? Or can a
below-market transfer (with the difference as gift) be
inferred to pessimize the tax result? If the title is
initially changed merely for purposes of passing on death
and the child subsequently cares for the parent does the
gift retroactively become a "purchase" for consideration?

Dan Lanciani
ddl@danlan.*com

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only >>
<< and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting >>
<< messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

Posted by Stuart A. Bronstein on April 17, 2006, 10:35 pm
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ddl@danlan.*com (Dan Lanciani) wrote:
> spamtrap@sbcglobal.net (Stuart A. Bronstein) writes:
>> ddl@danlan.*com (Dan Lanciani) wrote:

> If you previously paid gift tax because you exceeded the
> lifetime gift number but your estate (with add back) is
> under the estate tax number do you get a refund of the
> credit? (The "unified" gift and estate tax magic number
> for gifts is still just $1M, right?)

I haven't had this come up so I don't specifically know. My
guess is that you don't get anything back, but you just get
a (non-refundable) credit.

> I was thinking that you might have a credit with respect
> to a past gift that exceeds the tax that would be due on
> its reduced value in the estate. (Or is the value that
> is included in the estate the value that was used at the
> time of the taxable gift?) This seems like the kind of
> thing that often provokes special rules that insure that
> you lose both ways, e.g., limiting the credit to the
> lesser of the past tax paid and the present tax that
> would be due.

That's normally the way it works with lots of different
taxes. You can get a credit, but if you don't use it all up
you lose it and don't get back the difference.

> How is the portion owned by the child determined? Is it
> the portion of the property at fair market value that could
> be bought by the fair market value of the care? Or can a
> below-market transfer (with the difference as gift) be
> inferred to pessimize the tax result?

The laws and regulations aren't clear whether valuation is
based on equal proportions or actuarial value. If a
transfer is considered to be for less than fair market
value, only the portion actually paid for at market value
will be considered owned by the guyer.

> If the title is
> initially changed merely for purposes of passing on death
> and the child subsequently cares for the parent does the
> gift retroactively become a "purchase" for consideration?

Probably not. If it were done so that the change of title
were in exchange for the promise to care for the parent, it
could then likely work, though value of the promise to care
would have to be determined.

Stu

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only >>
<< and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting >>
<< messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

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