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Subject Author Date
Real Estate Sales Tax Rick Blaine 01-20-2008
Posted by Rick Blaine on January 22, 2008, 12:19 am
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>Repairs are not an allowable expense of sale.

As you say. I thought there used to be an exception for repairs/cleanup done
immediately prior to the sale, but in reviewing Pub 523, there is no mention of
that.

========================================= MODERATOR'S COMMENT:
And those fix-up costs went on the old Form 2119, which was
retired effective May 7, 1997.

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Posted by Phil Marti on January 21, 2008, 9:11 pm
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"D. Stussy" wrote:

>> If you don't take the sales tax deduction for the year in question, the
> tax
>> paid would add to your basis.
>
> What basis? He's selling the property, not buying it. I would add it to
> the cost of the sale.

For reasons I can't begin to divine I got the OP switched to the other side
of the HUD-1 in my mind. Thanks for the catch. I agree that if not
deducted as sales tax it's an expense of sale.

However, "add it to the basis" may have still been right. If a 1099-S is
issued, it's not likely to reflect any expenses of sale, in which case I'd
add all of them to basis rather than reducing the reported sale proceeds.

--
Phil Marti
Clarksburg, MD

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<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
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<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
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Posted by scott s. on January 21, 2008, 5:36 pm
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> "Rick Blaine"wrote:
>
>> Deductability of expenses/taxes generally falls on the person who
>> paid them.
>> Since I have a HUD-1 that shows that I (the seller) paid those taxes,
>> it would
>> follow that if they are deductable, I would be the person to take the
>> deduction.
>
> The identity of the payer was missing from the OP.
>
>> It's a somewhat unusual situation as most states have sales taxes. A
>> few, including this one, have a goods & services tax, which is much
>> more broadly
>> applied.
>
> Also new information. In the OP, it was a "gross receipts" tax, which
> is a form of income tax, not sales tax.
>
>> I suspect it will only be deductible if I opt for the sales tax
>> deduction instead of the income tax deduction.
>
> Correct. Plus it must be a "general" tax, as opposed to the transfer
> taxes that you (or the buyer) may also have paid. Is there a general
> rate for sales of goods and services? That would be the amount that
> would be deductible as sales tax.
>
> If you don't take the sales tax deduction for the year in question,
> the tax paid would add to your basis.
>

My wife is a commissions-based real estate agent in such a state
(Hawaii). It has been the custom in the past that the Gross Excise
Tax (which she is liable for, not seller) is included in the
customary 6% commission. There has been an effort by the company
(and no doubt others) to separately list the Gross Excise Tax, as
is permitted by Hi DoTax for retail transactions, resulting in
a commission (in this case the 3% due to each broker/agent) plus
the 4.5 % (actually 4.71 because it's inclusive) GET. It's really
just a way to increase commissions. There is a provision in the
IRC for itemizers who elect to deduct state sales tax to count
the GET when it is separately stated on a sales slip or invoice.
>From the standpoint of seller, I think it is just included in
the costs of selling. For the buyer, it isn't clear to me (in
some cases buyer signs a representation contract agreeing to
pay the GET to buyer's agent). I suspect maybe the buyer could
include it within the "sales tax" paid for sked A.

scott s.
.

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Posted by Rick Blaine on January 21, 2008, 7:06 pm
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>My wife is a commissions-based real estate agent in such a state
>(Hawaii). It has been the custom in the past that the Gross Excise
>Tax (which she is liable for, not seller) is included in the
>customary 6% commission.

The local custom seems to be for the agencies involved to pass the tax through
to the seller, much as a doctor would charge a patient or a plumber a home
owner. For example, if the charge for services was $100, the patient will pay
$106. The tax will not be imputed to be within the $100.

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<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
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Posted by Harlan Lunsford on January 20, 2008, 11:12 am
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Rick Blaine wrote:
> I sold a residential property in 2007 in a state that imposes a gross receipts
> tax on the commission paid to the agents involved and am wondering if this
would
> be deductable?
>
> Note that this is not an appraiser fee, title fee or similar type of
transaction
> cost.
>
You say a "residential property". This could be either a personal
residence or rental property.

Certainly if the tax were imposed on the agents and therefore not on
you, it would not be deductible on schedule a. Perhaps it is listed on
the settlement sheet as a charge to you, the seller. In this case it
would factor in reductions in sale value, thus lessening your gain to be
reported to IRS. Of course if it was a personal residence, you might
not even be reporting gain if it's under 250,000$.

ChEAr$,
Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA

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<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
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