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Posted by Mark Bole on October 15, 2009, 10:57 am
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Marspinball wrote:
> I've been researching PUB 590 (page 55) and the IRS code (72(t)(2)(F))
> and seem to find some contradictions. My wife and I are purchasing our
> first home together. I currently own a home and she has never had an
> ownership interest in a home.
>
> My question is can my wife use 10K from her Roth since she is a first
> time home buyer where I exclusively have ownership in the home we
> currently live in ??
Well, she can't qualify for the exception to the 10% early distribution
penalty since you (spouse) don't meet the definition of a first-time
homebuyer, Pub 590 is pretty clear on that:
"First-time homebuyer. Generally, you are a first-time homebuyer if
you had no present interest in a main home during the 2-year period
ending on the date of acquisition of the home which the distribution is
being used to buy, build, or rebuild. If you are married, your spouse
must also meet this no-ownership requirement."
However, you can *always* withdraw *contributions* (not conversions) to
a Roth at any time for any reason with no tax or penalty, so if she
contributed at least $10K over the years, no problem. If the $10K
includes *earnings* or conversions, and she's under age 59.5, then more
rules apply, and most likely both tax and penalty would be due on the
earnings.
So, what exactly is the contradiction you found?
-Mark Bole
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