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Posted by Haskel LaPort on April 1, 2008, 11:39 pm
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> My clent, an independent contractor, worked for a employer away from
> home city. She received 1099-MISC for $80K and then a corrected 1099-
> MISC for $100K. There is NO documented reason for increase but she
> presumed it to cover reimbursement. She did have auto expense which was
> deducted. Lodging for her was provided directly to hotel by her client.
> She did not spend anything herself. I am following:
>
> "Code section 162a - An individual who has a temporary work assignment
> =3Faway from home=3F can deduct the travel expenses (mileage 48.5 cents),
> meals and lodging while away from home on business."
>
> She believes that she can deduct the lodging expense even though it was
> not paid by her, but rather for her. The increase on the 1099-MISC, if
> it is reimbursement, is far more than auto expenses. Why would her
> client pay the lodging fee and then provide their client with an
> identical amount on the 1099-MISC. She has a CPA realative who agrees
> with her. Your commnents most appreciated.
Why guess? Get the facts from her client first then proceed.
>
> Cliffp
>
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<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
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