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Posted by joetaxpayer on April 13, 2007, 11:48 pm
Please log in for more thread options > In many (most?) cases you are also given any fractional
> remainder shares in cash. For example, if you hold 98.987
> shares in Company x, and the ratio of the old stock to new
> stock is 4 to 1, you'll end up with 24.746745 shares of the
> new company, and they'll give you the 0.746745 in cash,
> leaving you with a nice round 24 shares of the new company.
> Just for yucks, since I've never dealt with this in a
> taxable account, how is this cash typically handled,
> tax-wise?
You follow the same equation, and still calculate a 'per
share' basis. You then have a transaction (for your example
above) of 0.746745 shares sold for the cash in lieu, with a
basis of 0.746745*(single share basis). This part of the
math is pretty simple once you have the numbers from the
spinoff paperwork.
JOE
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