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Taking Advantage of 0% Capital Gain Tax in 2008?

 

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Taking Advantage of 0% Capital Gain Tax in 2008? njoracle 01-23-2007
Posted by njoracle on January 23, 2007, 2:42 am
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A Jan 17, 2007 article in the Wall Street Journal states the
following regarding people in the bottom two tax brackets:

"If you still have confidence in your investment, but you
want to take advantage of the zero rate next year, here's a
strategy to consider: Sell some of the investment at a gain
in 2008, and then immediately buy back shares of the same
investment. That means you can still enjoy that zero rate,
maintain your position in the security but have a higher
basis when you eventually sell the new shares. (The strategy
doesn't run afoul of so-called wash-sale rules, because
these only apply when selling an investment at a loss, not
for gains.)"

Question 1: Will the sale of stocks in 2008 and the
associated capital gains throw you into a higher tax
bracket. For example, if taxable income in 2008 is $60,000
and capital gains are $35,000, does this throw you into a
higher tax bracket and therefore the 0% tax on capital gain
would not apply?

Question 2: I have about $250,000 capital gain in my house
(after the $500,000 exclusion). If I sell my house in 2008,
do I pay any capital gain tax? If no tax, can I sell the
house to my wife and get the favorable tax treatment?

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Posted by Rich Carreiro on January 24, 2007, 2:34 am
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> Question 1: Will the sale of stocks in 2008 and the
> associated capital gains throw you into a higher tax
> bracket. For example, if taxable income in 2008 is $60,000
> and capital gains are $35,000, does this throw you into a
> higher tax bracket and therefore the 0% tax on capital gain
> would not apply?

Long-term capital gains have two rates: 5% (0% in 2008) and
15%. The 5/0% rate only applies to that gain which would
fall into the 15% ordinary income bracket if the gain were
ordinary income.

Using the 2007 brackets for the example (since we don't know
what the 2008 brackets will be), we see that for MFJ, the
top of the 15% bracket is at $63,700 of taxable income.

So if you had $60,000 of taxable income (not counting the
long-term gain) and $35,000 of long-term gain, then the
first $3,700 of the gain would be taxed at 0% and the
remaining $31,300 at 15%.

> Question 2: I have about $250,000 capital gain in my house
> (after the $500,000 exclusion). If I sell my house in 2008,
> do I pay any capital gain tax?

Yes. See above.

--
Rich Carreiro rlcarr@animato.arlington.ma.us

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
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Posted by rick++ on January 24, 2007, 2:34 am
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>I understand this basically works if your income is $31,850
or less. Not exactly a tax break for middle class or better
who would have investment or deferred income substantially
greater than that. Might work for a modest retiree who is
sitting on stock for a long time that may be mostly gains
and wants to tke it w/o taxes.

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

Posted by Shyster1040 on January 24, 2007, 2:53 am
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Unfortunately the article doesn't really clearly explain how
the 0% rate applies. The gist of the article appears to be
that a person with significant non-capital gains income can
indirectly take advantage of the 0% rate by transferring (by
gift) appreciated property to persons who will have little
or no taxable income of any sort for '08, e.g., one's
college-age or younger children. By doing so, and depending
on your gift-tax exposure, the child would sell some of the
appreciated property in '08 and take advantage of the 0%
rate, effectively permitting the parent to transfer a
greater sum to the child than the parent could have done if
they had transferred money that had already been taxed.

In other words, if you're going to have to pay for your
child's education anyway, instead of paying the tuition
directly using money that you've already paid, say, a 30%
income tax on, transfer appreciated property with a value of
$12k or less to the child (thereby avoiding gift tax on the
value of the property) and have the child sell the property
and use the proceeds to pay the tuition.

Since most parents are unlikely to get much benefit out of
paying tuition costs directly because of the phase-out of
the education credits, in the scenario described, it would
make more sense to transfer the appreciated property to the
child and let them pay the tuition themselves. Provided
that the child's total taxable income, including any gain
from selling the appreciated property, was less than about
$33,900 for '08, the gain on sale of the property would be
taxed at the 0% rate. Of course, this only makes sense if
the property is substantially appreciated, since the basis
in the property is the parent's cost as measured in
after-tax dollars invested in the property - thus, the basis
represents money already taxed.

For example, suppose Parents, who file joint, will have
$90,000 of wage income for '08, and will therefore not
qualify for the 0% rate. Suppose also that they intend to
sell stock with a value of $12,000 to pay for child's
tuition in '08, and that child has her own taxable income of
$10,000 from wages. If the basis in the stock is $1,000,
then gain from the sale will be $11,000. If Parents sell
the stock, they will pay tax of $1,650 on the sale, leaving
them with net cash of $10,350 ($12,000 proceeds, less $1,650
tax) to spend on child's tuition. On the other hand, if
Parents make a gift of the stock to child, and child sells
the stock for $12k, then child will also recognize $11k of
gain (basis transfers in this case), will have total taxable
income of $21,000, thereby qualifying for the 0% rate on all
of the gain, and will pay a tax of $0. As a result, child
will have net cash of $12,000 ($12,000 proceeds, less $0
tax) to pay her own tuition. In addition, child is likely
to qualify for one of the education credits, resulting in
even less tax due on her other wage income. Assuming that
child qualifies for a $1,000 education credit as a result of
paying her own tuition (which should be fully useable with
other taxable wage income of $10,000), the net effect of
Parents transferring the stock to child instead of selling
it and paying the tuition themselves could be as great as
$2,650; i.e., child receives $2,650 more in economic benefit
- money to spend - than if Parents had sold the stock
themselves. That's a nice present from Uncle Sugar.

In particular, it should be noted (the article you refer to
does not highlight this point) that the amount of capital
gain that qualifies for the 0% rate is the amount of gain
you have that, as a general rule of thumb, does not exceed
$33,900 minus the amount of your non-long-term-capital gain
income ($67,800 minus non-cap gain income if filing
jointly).

In other words, if your non-long-term-capital gain income
exceeds the threshhold at which the 25% rate bracket applies
(approximately $33,900 or $66,800 for single/joint,
respectively, for '08), then none of your capital gains will
qualify for the 0% rate and will, instead, be taxed at the
by-now-normal 15% rate.

So, to answer your questions:

Q1: No, the amount of capital gains will not, by itself,
disqualify you for the 0% rate; however, the amount of gain
that qualifies will decrease as your other income increases,
and none will qualify if your other income exceeds the
bottom of the 25% rate bracket. Thus, given your facts, if
you file single, your other income exceeds the cap for '08
of approximately $33,900, and none of your cap gains will
qualify; if you file joint, your other income is below the
cap of approx. $67,800, but only about $7,800 of your cap
gains will qualify for the 0% rate, the remainder ($27,200 =
$35k - $7,800) will be taxed at the 15% rate.

Q2: First, you cannot sell your house to your wife and
recognize either gain or loss, see Code Section 1041(a).
Sec. 1041 is mandatory and prevents gain recognition even on
arms' length sales between spouses. See,e.g., Temp. Treas.
Reg. 1.1041-1T(a), A-2. Instead, the transfer would be
treated as a gift from you to your wife, and any
consideration she paid you would be treated as a gift from
her to you. As a result, regardless of your other income,
selling your house to your wife would not permit you to
recognize any of the unrealized appreciation in your house,
or to take advantage of the 0% rate.

If you were to sell your house to a third party, however,
assuming that you and your wife had no other income for '08,
and that you file jointly, only about $67,800 of the gain in
excess of $500,000 would qualify for the 0% rate. The
remaining $182,200 of that gain would be taxed at the 15%
rate. To the extent that you have other income, that other
income would reduce the amount of such gain that would
qualify for the 0% rate and, once your other income exceeds
$67,800, none of your gain in excess of $500,000 would
qualify for the 0% rate.

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<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
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Posted by Vigo on February 5, 2007, 1:51 am
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> Unfortunately the article doesn't really clearly explain how
> the 0% rate applies. The gist of the article appears to be
> that a person with significant non-capital gains income can
> indirectly take advantage of the 0% rate by transferring (by
> gift) appreciated property to persons who will have little
> or no taxable income of any sort for '08, e.g., one's
> college-age or younger children. By doing so, and depending
> on your gift-tax exposure, the child would sell some of the
> appreciated property in '08 and take advantage of the 0%
> rate, effectively permitting the parent to transfer a
> greater sum to the child than the parent could have done if
> they had transferred money that had already been taxed.
>
> In other words, if you're going to have to pay for your
> child's education anyway, instead of paying the tuition
> directly using money that you've already paid, say, a 30%
> income tax on, transfer appreciated property with a value of
> $12k or less to the child (thereby avoiding gift tax on the
> value of the property) and have the child sell the property
> and use the proceeds to pay the tuition.
>
> Since most parents are unlikely to get much benefit out of
> paying tuition costs directly because of the phase-out of
> the education credits, in the scenario described, it would
> make more sense to transfer the appreciated property to the
> child and let them pay the tuition themselves. Provided
> that the child's total taxable income, including any gain
> from selling the appreciated property, was less than about
> $33,900 for '08, the gain on sale of the property would be
> taxed at the 0% rate. Of course, this only makes sense if
> the property is substantially appreciated, since the basis
> in the property is the parent's cost as measured in
> after-tax dollars invested in the property - thus, the basis
> represents money already taxed.
>
> For example, suppose Parents, who file joint, will have
> $90,000 of wage income for '08, and will therefore not
> qualify for the 0% rate. Suppose also that they intend to
> sell stock with a value of $12,000 to pay for child's
> tuition in '08, and that child has her own taxable income of
> $10,000 from wages. If the basis in the stock is $1,000,
> then gain from the sale will be $11,000. If Parents sell
> the stock, they will pay tax of $1,650 on the sale, leaving
> them with net cash of $10,350 ($12,000 proceeds, less $1,650
> tax) to spend on child's tuition. On the other hand, if
> Parents make a gift of the stock to child, and child sells
> the stock for $12k, then child will also recognize $11k of
> gain (basis transfers in this case), will have total taxable
> income of $21,000, thereby qualifying for the 0% rate on all
> of the gain, and will pay a tax of $0. As a result, child
> will have net cash of $12,000 ($12,000 proceeds, less $0
> tax) to pay her own tuition. In addition, child is likely
> to qualify for one of the education credits, resulting in
> even less tax due on her other wage income. Assuming that
> child qualifies for a $1,000 education credit as a result of
> paying her own tuition (which should be fully useable with
> other taxable wage income of $10,000), the net effect of
> Parents transferring the stock to child instead of selling
> it and paying the tuition themselves could be as great as
> $2,650; i.e., child receives $2,650 more in economic benefit
> - money to spend - than if Parents had sold the stock
> themselves. That's a nice present from Uncle Sugar.
>
> In particular, it should be noted (the article you refer to
> does not highlight this point) that the amount of capital
> gain that qualifies for the 0% rate is the amount of gain
> you have that, as a general rule of thumb, does not exceed
> $33,900 minus the amount of your non-long-term-capital gain
> income ($67,800 minus non-cap gain income if filing
> jointly).
>
> In other words, if your non-long-term-capital gain income
> exceeds the threshhold at which the 25% rate bracket applies
> (approximately $33,900 or $66,800 for single/joint,
> respectively, for '08), then none of your capital gains will
> qualify for the 0% rate and will, instead, be taxed at the
> by-now-normal 15% rate.

Wouldn't the fact that the child used the money from the
sale of the gifted stock to pay his tuition cause him to
lose his eligibility as a dependent? To claim the child as a
dependent, the parent would need to pay at least half of his
support. The parent is probably not paying much of anything
to support the child away at college other than his tuition
and room and board. If the child pays his own tuition,
wouldn't this jeopardize his standing as a dependent? The
money saved by having the child sell the appreciated stock
with zero capital gain might be outweighed by the loss of
the dependent deduction.

<< ======================================================= >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ======================================================= >>

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