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Posted by Brew1 on August 30, 2009, 1:19 pm
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> I have a friend who is getting divorced. It's going to be a financially
> devastating thing for her because she doesn't have a high enough income to
> cover the home expenses. Her husband has agreed to pay for her home
> mortgage and the child's education expenses. Assuming the husband is
> willing to give her 100% ownership of the home, what is the most tax
> efficient way to transfer all equity to her?
> A related question is won't the husband be removing his home interest
> deduction allowance if he gifts his share of equity in the home to her?
>
> Can the home's equity be transferred in full to the wife prior to the
> divorce being finalized without creating a taxable event for the wife? Can
> the husband claim any kind of deduction for this?
>
> Is there a more tax efficient way to do this, for both sides? Perhaps he
> could gift $12K of his equity each tax year until she owns all equity in the
> home? How would that need to be documented to satisfy the IRS?
>
> Perhaps she could buy out his interest and use a person to person loan and
> he could forgive non-payment of each month/quarter's interest/principal
> payments? (The total payments due each year would probably need to be under
> $12K?)
>
> She will of course consult attorney and accountant before finalizing a
> divorce, but at this stage she is trying to get some understanding of
> approaches that might work to everyone's advantage, and of approaches that
> she must avoid.
>
> --
> W
>
>
Assets acquired in a divorce do not normally trigger any tax at all.
The wrong way to do divorce (IMO) is for one spouse to cash out a
position and then give the proceeds to the other spouse--that will
trigger taxes for the original owner.
You cannot claim a deduction for home mortgage/property taxes unless
you owned an interest in the home and you made the payment(s).
--
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