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Posted by Bill on June 13, 2008, 12:37 pm
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spam@bde-arc.ampr.org (D. Stussy) posted:
>in message
>>er.com...
>>>an_ordinary_guy_158@hotmail.com (Bill)
>>>writes:
>>>Now, if the TP was making "after tax"
>>>contributions to an IRA, and wishes to
>>>withdraw those -- net without interest, of
>>>course
>>You can't withdraw non-deductible IRA
>>contributions like that. They come out
>>pro-rata, with the denominator being the total
>>value of ALL the TP's traditional IRAs. See
>>Form 8606.
>>>That particular amount can be withdrawn
>>>with no tax liability
>>No, it can't.
>Actually, it is without liability. However, it
>must be prorated as a ratio applied to all
>distributions. It's not possible to withdraw
>ONLY the post-tax contributions from a
>traditional IRA. Perhaps "Bill" was thinking of
>the Roth IRA?
D. Stussy nailed it. I was addled in my thinking -- torn between the
"RMD" issue and the FIFO application to early Roth distributions. Mea
Culpa. Appreciation the clarifications, all.
Bill
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