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Posted by D. Stussy on October 5, 2009, 6:23 pm
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> >> In article
> >> >Have a client who made a payment up front in 2008 to a contractor for
> >> >an addition to a rental property. The contractor did no work and was
> >> >actually in bankrupcy. The client pursued the matter into 2009 and I
> >> >told him that it would be a deduction in 2009. The client is not
happy
> >> >with me or the return I have prepared. Now I was thinking in terms of
> >> >treating this as a bad debt--would it be correct to classify it as a
> >> >theft (fraud) and would that make a difference in what year the loss
> >> >is claimed?
> >>
> >>
> >> Was it fraud? Did the contractor plan to take money with no intention
> >> of doing the work? Did your client file a police report claiming
fraud?
> >
> > I not only agree with the above, I also note that as the payment was
not
> > intended to be a loan, it's not really a debt.
>
> not so. there are debts other than loans.
>
> According to IRS Publication 550:
> "Insolvency of contractor. You can take a bad debt deduction for the
amount
> you deposit with a contractor if the contractor becomes insolvent and you
> are unable to recover your deposit. If the deposit is for work unrelated
to
> your trade or business, it is a nonbusiness bad debt deduction."
I disagree with the application. A mere deposit isn't a taxable event by
itself. The insolvency triggers the taxable event. Such requires that the
contractor is NOT insolvent at the time of the deposit.
>From the OP: "The contractor did no work and was actually in
bankrupcy."[sic]
(NOT that he filed for bankruptcy after entering into the contract.)
If the contractor was already insolvent at the time of the deposit, it's
fraud and therefore the casualty deduction applies in 2008.
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