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Posted by Arthur Kamlet on March 8, 2009, 5:03 pm
Please log in for more thread options >> brew.one@gmail.com (Brew1) posted:
>>
>>>client received an interest in a residence as a
>>>gift. An accountant planted the idea that she
>>>can take a loss on the sale because it's
>>>"investment property."
>>
>>>I recall the definition (but can't find the citation)
>>>of investment property as something along the
>>>lines of "purchased with the intent of selling at
>>>a profit." There was no purchase and property
>>>would be considered a personal residence for
>>>the owner who gifted the interest to the client.
>>
>>>I've established her basis, the question here is
>>>can she take a loss?
>
>Sorry, I don't know of a citation, but something seems to be missing from
>the story. If gifted property is sold at a loss basis is the lesser of the
>donor's adjusted basis at the time of the transfer or FMV at the time of the
>transfer. So there must have been some time in between the transfer and the
>sale for there to be a loss.
I would state this differently:
If gifted property has a FMV at time of gift lower than donor's
basis, then basis is FMV at time of gift to compute loss and is
donor's basis to compute gain.
If gifted when FMV at time of gift is higher than donor's basis,
use donors basis to compute gain or loss.
Same results, different statement.
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ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH
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