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Posted by D. Stussy on May 13, 2008, 7:50 pm
Please log in for more thread options > >> There are various reasons. One is that in the US judgments
> >> generally don't include an award of attorneys fees unless there
> >> is a law or contract to specifically provides for it. In other
> >> words, you pay your lawyer out of your winnings. The other party
> >> doesn't.
> >
> > I understand that you need to pay the attorneys/lawyers, but
> > shouldn't the award be for an amount that assures that? Isn't
> > there aneed to recover attorney's fees in this case of (whatever
> > it should be called, but it sounds like fraud, or at least
> > misrepresentation or lack of performance)?
>
> The "American rule" (as opposed to the English rule and perhaps the
> rule in other jurisdictions but I am not aware of them) is that a
> winning litigant will not recover an award of attorney's fees unless
> there is a contract or a statute the provides for it. In most
> situations (other than commercial or consumer transaction) there is no
> such law or contract.
>From memory:
For U.S. District Court or Court of Claims, see FRCP 54. However, one has
to specifically ask for costs - it's not automatic.
For U.S. Tax Court, the IRC has a section which governs when cost recovery
can be made.
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